Sunday, March 18, 2018

[xhazmizv] Genocide and economic well-being

Hypothesize there is negative correlation between a country's economic well-being and its predilection to commit genocide.  The hypothesized mechanism is they are looking for a scapegoat to blame for their economic troubles.

Is this true?  I suspect there is lots of data to test this hypothesis.  Are there exceptions (low economic well-being but no genocide, or high economic well-being with genocide)?  How can one explain the exceptions (if there are any)?

To what extent can the economic troubles of Germany after World War I be attributed to actions taken by the WWI victor countries seeking spoils of war, e.g., reparations?  Assuming true the causality from economic downturn to genocide, this becomes an intensely political question: who is to blame for the Holocaust?

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