As a "dry" narrow theoretical macroeconomic question, why, at the macroeconomic scale, should a skewed distribution of wealth affect economic recovery (defined as GDP growth)? The rich may spend less than the poor, but that which they don't spend they must invest (save), and investment is also good for the economy, for example, to increase productivity (which will cause GDP growth). Isn't a dollar of GDP a dollar of GDP regardless of who earns it?
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